https://www.proz.com/kudoz/english/medical-instruments/1068022-3-and-36-months.html&phpv_redirected=1

3 and 36 months

English translation: common

07:53 Jun 21, 2005
English language (monolingual) [PRO]
Medical - Medical: Instruments / Implantable contact lens
English term or phrase: 3 and 36 months
As outlined above, 0% of eyes experienced worse than 20/40 BSCVA at any point in time during the study follow-up period between 3 and 36 months.
I think here ¡°3 and 36 months¡± means the third and the 36th months, or month 3 and month 36. It has puzzled me why it is written this way. I also see this kind of expression in other medical documents. Is it a regular way to use this kind of jargon in writing medical patents etc.?

TIA!!!
Jianming Sun
Local time: 06:47
Selected answer:common
Explanation:
Probably to avoid having to write "3 months and 3 years", but yes, it's common. As an ENS, I find nothing particularly odd about it, especially as it is from a medical report - medical language can often be relied on to be slightly (!) different from that used by the man in the street.
Selected response from:

David Moore (X)
Local time: 00:47
Grading comment
Thanks!
4 KudoZ points were awarded for this answer



SUMMARY OF ALL EXPLANATIONS PROVIDED
4 +9common
David Moore (X)


Discussion entries: 2





  

Answers


10 mins   confidence: Answerer confidence 4/5Answerer confidence 4/5 peer agreement (net): +9
common


Explanation:
Probably to avoid having to write "3 months and 3 years", but yes, it's common. As an ENS, I find nothing particularly odd about it, especially as it is from a medical report - medical language can often be relied on to be slightly (!) different from that used by the man in the street.

David Moore (X)
Local time: 00:47
Native speaker of: English
PRO pts in category: 4
Grading comment
Thanks!

Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
agree  Ken Cox: Yes, very common usage. IMO it is style, not jargon, and 'between 3 and 36 months' is generally considered to be much better style in technical writing than 'between 3 months and 3 years' (because it maintains the same units).
35 mins

agree  Ian M-H (X): Kenneth's right about consistency. It's also to do with precision: 36 months implies less leeway than 3 years. Interestingly, 36 months is usually the upper limit - for a longer period the text would almost certainly have used years.
53 mins

agree  Elizabeth Rudin
1 hr

agree  Vicky Papaprodromou
2 hrs

agree  airmailrpl: - this AENS agrees
2 hrs

agree  Rachel Fell: and agree with Ian's comments (and Kenneth's)
3 hrs

agree  Angela Dickson (X)
7 hrs

agree  Saleh Chowdhury, Ph.D.
8 hrs

agree  Alfa Trans (X)
10 hrs
Login to enter a peer comment (or grade)



Login or register (free and only takes a few minutes) to participate in this question.

You will also have access to many other tools and opportunities designed for those who have language-related jobs (or are passionate about them). Participation is free and the site has a strict confidentiality policy.

KudoZ™ translation help

The KudoZ network provides a framework for translators and others to assist each other with translations or explanations of terms and short phrases.


See also: