double jeopardy

05:28 May 23, 2007
English to Latin translations [PRO]
Law/Patents - Law (general)
English term or phrase: double jeopardy
Is it "ne bis in idem" or "non bis in idem" in Latin?
"Non bis" gets outgoogled by "ne bis" by 224,000 to 178,000, but that, of course, does not necessarily make the latter correct.

Thanks in advance!
Pavle Perencevic
Canada
Local time: 18:16


Summary of answers provided
5Vide infra
Joseph Brazauskas


  

Answers


10 hrs   confidence: Answerer confidence 5/5
Vide infra


Explanation:
There was no legal equivilent to 'double jeopardy' in Roman law.

'Exceptio rei in iudicium deductae' does not mean, and cannot be construed as meaning, 'double jeopardy'. The phrase merely means the objection or objections of the defendant (rei) to the plaintiff's statements, which were afterwards inserted in the praetor's edict resulting from the case. In other words, it was a matter of record, pure and simple.

Cf. Gaius, Institutes, 4.116f.; Justinian, Institues, 4.13, Digest, 44.1; Cicero, de inventione, 2.19, de oratore, 1.37.


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Note added at 12 hrs (2007-05-23 17:30:32 GMT)
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A 'litis contestatio' was a legal formality wherein the accused, having been already condemned, filed a suit in court and called witnesses in an attempt to clear his name. It was not a second trial of the accused on the same charge for which he had been convicted nor, except by Imperial decree, did it nullify the praetor's edict.

Cf. Gaius, Institutes, 3.180f.; Justinian, Digest, 3.3.40 § 3, 24.3.22 § 5.

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Note added at 12 hrs (2007-05-23 17:43:31 GMT)
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'Non bis in idem' is in fact a modern, not a classical, legal and means "that no one shall be twice tried for the same offence; that is, that when a party accused has been once tried by a tribunal in the last resort, and either convicted or acquitted, he shall not again be tried."

http://www.juridicaldictionary.com/Non_bis_in_idem.htm


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Note added at 2 days11 hrs (2007-05-25 16:43:11 GMT)
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In theory at least, both are correct. Whether 'non' or 'ne' is used will depend upon whether a verb in the subjunctive (much less often in the imperative) follows. Since the phrase is rarely, if ever, followed by a subordinate clause in English, it makes no difference which is used (unless one is writing in Latin).

Joseph Brazauskas
United States
Local time: 21:16
Native speaker of: Native in EnglishEnglish, Native in SpanishSpanish

Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
neutral  Zrinka Milas: Ne bis in idem. I explained you why, Pavle! :-)
3 hrs
  -> I bid you a very good day, Madam.
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