devoir/droit

14:04 May 13, 2015 

Yes, valid point @Daryo; but the way I see the text as a whole it it's very much discussing the role of monopolies at they were in the 17/18thC; but I'll be sure to review the tense of this particular passage and give it some careful consideration.
Great work everyone, thank you.

13:47 May 13, 2015 

change the whole text, but I see no need to use the past tense.

The present tense was used in FR because the text is about relations between various concept, them being the same today as they were then then or since any of these concepts was created.

for example, the concepts of market, offer and demand are "timeless", and even when discussing the economics of the Roman Empire, it's perfectly logical to use the present tense if discussing relations between these general concepts.

ALSO

Les privilèges exclusifs sont la première forme que revêt ce droit

logically "ce droit" can't be "les monopoles d’invention" if "les monopoles d’invention" [IOW "privilèges exclusifs"] are only one instance of it;

ce droit = "le droit de protéger sa propriété intellectuelle" NOT "les monopoles d’invention"

if refers to some previous part of the text where the general notion of "the right to protect your inventions" was defined or mentioned.

10:06 May 13, 2015 

Maybe more like ...

We should note that monopolies of invention, intended as a response to the dilemma of knowledge economies, needed to resolve the tension between encouraging the production of new knowledge

... which could be further improved!

09:49 May 13, 2015 

Do note that you still have a very FR construction with 'incitement to' and promotion of' — it often leads to better style in EN to change these expressions using a noun into ones using an active verb — certainly in your second instance, I think this is quite important, and it can be made to work for the first instance too.

09:34 May 13, 2015 

Thanks very much everyone for your help. Here's how I currently have the translation:

It should be noted that invention monopolies – which were intended as a response to the dilemma of knowledge economies – needed to resolve the tension between the incitement to produce new knowledge and the promotion of the use of this knowledge in society. Exclusive privileges were the first way in which this right was assumed, thereby participating in an ‘organisation of invention’.

21:37 May 12, 2015 

Yes it is, @DLyons!

20:15 May 12, 2015 

If so, "needed to" may be appropriate.

18:34 May 12, 2015 

I agree that once a couple of choices have been made with which verb to use and which tense works, then there is the matter of hierarchy. If thre is a question of degree between the various verbs in the extract, then I think that Delaina will play around with the pieces of the puzzle to get the best fit.

18:31 May 12, 2015 

Can be translated quite well here as "meant to be..." or "were meant as a..." or "were intended as a..."

17:37 May 12, 2015 

This is going in the wrong direction since "to have to be" = "devoir être" and "to be required to"= "devoir faire"; devoir by itself is simply "must" or "had to" depending on the tense. We can only go by the text and information given and any "wrong" extrapolation only adds confusion.

17:29 May 12, 2015 

I think one of the problems you may be having here is in your choice of terms for the two verbs 'censés' and 'devoir' — it seems to me that 'understood as' doesn't really convey the meaning of 'censés' correctly, which surely has more the sense of 'were intended to...' (cf. you own 'expected'), whereas 'devoir' is a whole lot stronger; as I've suggested, the notion of 'were required to...' or 'had to...' (past tense of the modal verb 'to must'!), or even possibly 'needed to', where there is no obvious subject that might be doing the 'requiring'!

17:22 May 12, 2015 

Although this is not a serious contender in your current context, do just bear in mind that 'devoir' sometimes has the sense of 'to have to be' or 'to be required to be' — maybe that might help us all think outside the box a little more?

17:18 May 12, 2015 

In terms of the meaning it is "must"

17:17 May 12, 2015 

Thanks for your clarification and on that basis the use of "had" is indeed correct however it all depends on what tense you have used for the rest of the text to make sure that the chronology is respected.

17:05 May 12, 2015 

As this is in the past, then a strict rendering would give "had to" for "doivent" here. However, I do like your choice of "were expected to". It describes a requirement which has to be met. The passive voice is often a natural choice. I think it is a good fit in context.

Suggestions:
- "Note that..." or "It should be noted that.." rather than "We should note that...."
- "Rather than "by thus participating in..." how about "and thereby took part in..." or "this right, thereby participating in...".


As I understand it, "droit" is referring back to the "monopoles d'invention".

16:42 May 12, 2015 

Thanks @Ghyslaine LE NAGARD: I'm using the past tense in English as the 17th/18th centuries are being discussed in the French (which is using the historic present). But I guess the present could possibly be used here for 'must'. Any more thoughts on the meaning here?